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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

15.06.2025 03:45

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

The Democrats’ candidate, Kamala, is a total loser, while our candidate, Trump, is a legendary hero and a living god. Are you ready to lose BIG Democrats?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Do you think Japan will have same-sex marriage by 2030?

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why did Trump’s team spin the lie that Melania Trump spoke several languages? Do they not realize she can hardly speak English after living in the US for over 40 years?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.